Which statement correctly differentiates Bipolar I from Bipolar II?

Which statement correctly differentiates Bipolar I from Bipolar II?

• A. Bipolar I requires depressive episodes
• B. Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode
• C. Bipolar II requires manic episode
• D. Bipolar II requires no depressive episodes

Answer: (B)

The key idea is how mania vs hypomania differentiates the two disorders. Bipolar I is defined by at least one manic episode, which may occur with depressive episodes but depression is not required. Mania is a distinct, more severe state lasting at least a week (or shorter if hospitalization is needed) with marked impairment and symptoms like inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, and risky behavior. Bipolar II, on the other hand, features hypomanic episodes (similar but milder and without marked impairment or psychosis) plus at least one major depressive episode, and never a full manic episode. So the statement that Bipolar I requires a manic episode best differentiates the two.

The key idea is how mania vs hypomania differentiates the two disorders. Bipolar I is defined by at least one manic episode, which may occur with depressive episodes but depression is not required. Mania is a distinct, more severe state lasting at least a week (or shorter if hospitalization is needed) with marked impairment and symptoms like inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, and risky behavior. Bipolar II, on the other hand, features hypomanic episodes (similar but milder and without marked impairment or psychosis) plus at least one major depressive episode, and never a full manic episode. So the statement that Bipolar I requires a manic episode best differentiates the two.